JEE Main Session-1 Exam 2025 : 24 January Shift-1 Analysis, Review & Question Paper with Answer Key

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JEE Main 2025 January 24 Shift 1 exam is over now. JEE Main 2025 January 24 Shift 1 student feedback and analysis is updated here. Additionally, memory-based unofficial JEE Main 2025 answer key and question paper with solutions for January 24 exam is also uploaded.

Candidates can check the responses of JEE Main January 24, 2025 Shift 1 students, difficulty level of questions, paper analysis, memory-based question paper with answer key and solutions, etc.

Shift 2 will start at 03:00 PM and end at 06:00 PM. Candidates will have to show their JEE Main 2025 Session 1 admit card to enter the JEE Main 2025 exam centre for the shift 2 exam. Additionally, candidates will have to bring a government-issued photo identity card and a passport-sized photograph. Proper adherence to these entry requirements is necessary to attend the exam.

Paper 1 for BE/BTech candidates in JEE Main 2025 will be held on January 22, 23, 24, 28 and 29. Paper 2A and 2B for BArch and BPlan candidates are scheduled on January 30, 2025 from 3:00 PM to 6:30 PM.

👉 JEE Mains 2025 (24 January Shift-1 Physics) Question Paper and Answer Key (Available)

👉 JEE Mains 2025 (24 January Shift-1 Chemistry) Question Paper and Answer Key (Available)

👉 JEE Mains 2025 (24 January Shift-1 Mathematics) Question Paper and Answer Key (Available)

JEE Main Session 1 Memory Based Paper 2025

Exam Dates	Physics	Chemistry	Maths
22 January 2025	Shift - 1	Shift - 1	Shift - 1
22 January 2025	Shift - 2	Shift - 2	Shift - 2
23 January 2025	Shift - 1	Shift - 1	Shift - 1
23 January 2025	Shift - 2	Shift - 2	Shift - 2
24 January 2025	Shift - 1	Shift - 1	Shift - 1
24 January 2025	Shift - 2	Shift - 2	Shift - 2
28 January 2025	Shift - 1	Shift - 1	Shift - 1
28 January 2025	Shift - 2	Shift - 2	Shift - 2
29 January 2025	Shift - 1	Shift - 1	Shift - 1
29 January 2025	Shift - 2	Shift - 2	Shift - 2

JEE Main 24 January 2025 Shift 1 Paper Overall Exam Analysis

Aspirants can check the overall exam analysis for JEE Main 24 January 2025 Shift 1 exam in the table below.

Parameter	Analysis
Overall difficulty level	Moderate
Difficulty Level of Physics	Easy ( Easy. Two questions were repeated from the previous year's paper.)
Difficulty Level of Chemistry	Easy to Moderate (Easy with a few tough questions)
Difficulty Level of Mathematics	Lengthy and Tough
Topics asked in Physics	Vectors, Ray and Optics, Modern Physics, Semiconductors and Current Electricity
Topics asked in Chemistry	Chemical Bonding, Mole Concept, Electrochemistry, and Determinants
Topics asked in Maths	More questions from Vectors and 3D, Area
Focus on NCERT	According to the Jan 24 Shift 1 paper analysis, the students should focus on NCERT syllabus and topics.

JEE Main Paper Review 24 January 2025 Shift 1 : Students' Reviews

Some of the reactions for JEE Main 24 January Shift 1 Exam Analysis from the candidates will be updated here:

Physics was easy, 2 questions directly from PYQs (Amplitude and lamda not formula based), 1 easy question on flux from square plate. As per students Physics subject had a lot of formula-based questions. Modern Physics had 2 questions, Ray Optics also had 2 questions (from PlanoConvex Lens). 1 question from Semiconductor (Diode + theoretical question on Solar Cell and LED), No questions from logic gate, 2 questions from Current Electricity, No questions from Electromagnetism, 1 simple question from Energy where capacitor's energy was asked,
Chemistry was easy to moderate
Maths was tough and lengthy, questions required a lot of calculation. Many students attempted only 3-6 questions from Maths section.

JEE Main 2025 January 24 Updates: Initial Paper Analysis OUT

As per the students who attempted the JEE Main 2025 January 24 exam, the paper was of moderate difficulty.

Physics - Easy. Two questions were repeated from the previous year's paper.
Mathematics - Lengthy and Tough
Chemistry - Easy with a few tough questions.

JEE Main 2025 Day 3 Updates: Physics Paper Analysis

Students found the Physics section in JEE Main 2025 January 24 Shift 1 paper easy. There were more formula-based questions. The important topics were Vectors, Ray and Optics, Modern Physics, Semiconductors and Current Electricity.

JEE Main 2025 January 24 Shift 1 Updates: Chemistry Paper Analysis OUT

As per the students, there were more questions from the Organic Chemistry section. The important topics were Chemical Bonding, Mole Concept, Electrochemistry, and Determinants. There were also questions from Physical Questions.

JEE Main 2025 January 24 Shift 1 Updates: Mathematics Paper Analysis Available Now

JEE Main 2025 January 24 Shift 1 Mathematics section was tough and lengthy. There were more questions from Vectors and 3D, Area.

JEE Main 2025 Exam Updates: Confusion in Question

Some students faced confusion in the JEE Main 2025 question from the Periodic table topic. The statement question was 'Which of the following questions is not correct?'. However, after the statements, there was another question stating to choose the correct statement from the given options.

Physics

Mathematics

Chemistry

JEE Main 24 January 2025 Physics Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key Solutions

Here is JEE Main 24 January 2025 Physics question paper with answer key solutions for Shift 1.

Q.No.	Question	Answers
1	If I= I _Asincot + I _Bcoscot, then find rms value of current	I _rms√1 ²A+1 ²B 2
2	What is relative shift of focal length of a lens when optical power is increased from 0.1 D to 2.5 D	24/25
3	The electric flux through the shaded area of square plate of side a due to point charge placed at distance of a/2 from it as shown in figure, NQ/48 E ₀. then N is	5
4.	In a square loop of side length 1/√2 ma current of 5A is flowing. Find magnetic field at its centre in ( μT)	8
5	Satellite A is launched in a circular orbit of radius R. Satellite B is launched in circular orbit of radius 1.03R. The period of B is greater than A by approximately	4.5%
6	An electron jumps from principle quantum state A to C by releasing photon of wavelength 2000 A and from state B to C by releasing a photon of wavelength 6000 A then find the wavelength of photon for transistor from A to B.	3000A
7.	For an ideal mono atomic gas undergoing an isobaric process, the ratio of ΔQ/ΔU is	5/3
8	An electron of mass m enters in a region of uniform electric field E = -E ₀k at t=0 with an initial velocity V= V ₀t. If the de-Brogile wavelength is λ ₀initially, the de-Brogile wavelength at a time t is
9	In a process pressure of the gas is directly proportional to temperature then choose the correct option. A: Process is isochoric B: Work done in process is zero. C: Internal energy increase with increase in temperature	A, B and C are correct
10.	If the distance two parallel plate of a capacitor is d, A is the area of each plate and E is the electric field, Find the energy stored in capacitor.	1/2 E ²A ^E0d
11	In YDSE, lights of wavelength 600 nm and 480 nm are used. What is the minimum order of bright fringe of 480 nm coincides with bright fringe of 600 nm.	5
12	A body of mass m is projected with a initial velocity v _⁰at 45 degree with horizontal. Find its angular momentum at highest point about point of projection.	m v ₀³ 4 √2 g
13	A plane convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and radius of curvature of curved surface of 20 cm present in air is having focal length of f ₁. There is another plane convex lens of refractive index of 1.5 & ROC of 30 cm placed in liquid of RI of 1.2 having focal length of f ₂the f ₁/f ₂is	1/3
14.	Acceleration of solid cylinder purely rolling an inclined plane of inclination of θ	2/3g sin θ
15.	Find the maximum possible velocity for the given angle of banking θ on a curved road of radius r having a coefficient of friction μ
16	In a parallel plate capacitor length and width are 3 cm and 1 cm respectively. Separation between plates is 3μm. By which of the following value capacitance increase by a factor of 10.	A and B
17	In SHM given by equation x= Asincot of time period 2 sec and amplitude 1 cm ratio of Distance/Displacement in first 1.25 sec is	2√2 + 1
18	A wire of resistance 9Ω is bent in form of an equilateral triangle. Find equivalent resistance between two vertices of a triangle.	2Ω
19	Work done required to break a drop of radius R to 27 drops of equal radius is 10J. Then work done to break drop of radius R in 64 drops of equal radii is XJ, then X is	15J
20	A particle moves on a straight line under the influence of a force F = α+ βx ², where x is the displacement and β= -12 SI units. If the total work done for a displacement x= 1m is 12J then α is ____ SI units.	16

JEE Main 24 January 2025 Chemistry Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key Solutions

Here is JEE Main 24 January 2025 Chemistry question paper with answer key solutions for Shift 1.

Q.No.	Question	Answers
1	Which of the following is the strongest oxidising agent?	Ce ⁴⁺
2	The difference in melting point and boiling point of oxygen and sulphur can be explained by	Atomicity
3	Ribose present in DNA is (A) It is a pentose sugar (B) Present in pyranose form (C) α anomeric carbon is present (D) Present in D configuration (E) It is reducing sugar in free form Choose the correct statements.	(A), (D) & (E) only
4	If the K _spof Cr(OH) ₃is 1.6 * 10 ^-30M ⁴. The molar solubility of salt in water is 1.56 * 10 ^-x, then value of x is	8
5	Find the most stable carbocation among the following carbocations.
6	Which of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction?	Para-nitro benzaldehyde
7	In H ₂O, NH ₃and CH ₄ (A) All central atoms are sp ³hybridised (B) Order of dipole moment is CH ₄< NH ₃< H ₂O (C) NH ₃in H ₂O is basic in nature, NH ₃and H ₂O are Bronsted-Lowry acid and bases respectively (D) Bond angle of H ₂O, NH ₃and CH, respectively are 104.5°, 107° and 109.5°	A, B and D only
8	Which of the following is most reactive towards aq. HBr?	(P)
9	At the freezing point of water, the process is non-spontaneous, at boiling point it becomes spontaneous (Temperature varies linearly with pressure). The correct option is	∆H = +ve ∆S = +ve
10	In the preparation of potassium permanganate from pyrolusite ore (MnO ₂), the fusion of the pyrolusite ore is done with an alkali metal hydroxide like KOH in the presence of air or an oxidising agent like KNO ₃, which first produces.	K ₂MnO ₄
11	Statement 1: Duma's method is used for estimation of nitrogen Statement 2: In Duma's method N present in compound is converted to (NH ₄) ₂SO ₄	Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect
12	Fe ²⁺+ Ag ⁺→ Fe ³⁺+ Ag; E _net⁰______? Ag ⁺+ e ^-→ Ag; E° = x Fe ²⁺+ 2e ^-→ Fe; E° = y Fe ³⁺+ 3e ^-→ Fe; E° = z The value of E _net⁰= ?	x + 2y - 3z
13	Consider the given reactions and choose proper solvent.	Statement-l: polar aprotic, Statement-II: polar aprotic
14	2.32 x 10 ³kg of Fe ₃O ₄reacts with 2.8 × 10 ³kg of CO according to the following reaction: Fe ₃O ₄+ CO → CO ₂+ Fe If x kg of Fe is formed. Find the value of x?	1680 kg
15	Consider the following reaction
16	When x g of Benzoic acid reacts with NaHCO ₃, 11.2 L of CO ₂is released at 273 K and 1 atm pressure, calculate mass of benzoic acid in gram?	61 gm
17	How many of the following cation shows characteristic coloured ppt. with K ₄[Fe(CN) ₆]? Cu ²⁺, Ca ²⁺, Ba ²⁺, Fe ³⁺, Zn ²⁺, Mg ²⁺, Mn ²⁺	3
18	Consider the following reaction of a complex compound The formula of complex is	[Co(NH ₃) ₅Cl] Cl ₂
19	Consider the following plots of vapour pressure of a solution containing non-volatile solute versus temperature in K and choose the correct graph which represents depression in freezing of solvent.
20
21	Select the incorrect statement about the modern periodic table.	Physical and chemical properties of elements are based on their atomic weight

JEE Main 24 January 2025 Mathematics Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key Solutions

Here is JEE Main 24 January 2025 Mathematics question paper with answer key solutions for Shift 1:

Q.No.	Question	Answers
1	If the 5th, 6th and 7th term of the binomial expansion of (1 + x ²) ⁿ⁺⁴are in A.P. Then the greatest binomial coefficient in the expansion of (1 + x ²) ⁿ⁺⁴is	35
2	The number of 3 digit numbers which is divisible by 2 and 3 but not divisible by 4 and 9.	125
3	If A is 3 x 3 matrix such that det(A) = 2. Then det(adj (adj(adj (adj))))	2 ¹⁶
4	Evaluate lim (x→0) [cosecx. (2cos ²x + 3cosx) ^1/2- (cos ²x + sin x + 4) ^1/2)	-1/2√5
5	If a = i + 2j + 3k, b=3i + j - k and ĉ is coplanar with a and b. Also a - c = 5 and ĉ is perpendicular to b. Then \| c \| is	(11/6) ^1/2
6	The area of the region bounded by S(x, v) such that S = {(x, y) : x ²+ 4x + 2 ≤ y ≤ \|x + 2\|} is (in sq. units)	20/3
7	If dy/dx - (x/(1 + x ²))y = √x / √(1 + x ²) and y(0) = 0, then find the value of y(1).	√2/3
8	If α and β are real numbers such that sec ²(tan ^-1(α)) + cosec2(cot ^-1(β)) = 36 and α + β = 8, then (α ²+ β) is (α > β)	28
9	Two persons A and B throws a pair of dice alternatively. For A to win he should throw sum of 5 before B throws sum of 8. If A throws first, then the probability that A wins, is	9/19
10	For a distribution of 10 observations, Σ(i = 1 to 10) x _i= 55 and Σ(i = 1 to 10) x _i²= 328. If the observations 4 and 5 are replaced by 6 and 8 respectively, then the new variance is	2.7
11	Find the product of all real roots of equation (x2 - 9x + 11) ²- (x - 4) (x - 5) = 2 is	99
12	If S be the set of 10 distinct primes and let A be the set of product of two or more elements from the set S. If P = {(x, y) : x ∈ S and y ∈ A and y is divided by x}. Then n(P) is equal to	5110
13	If I(m, n) = ∫01x ^m-1(1 - x) ^n-1dx, m, n > 0, then I(9, 14) + l(10, 13) is equal to	l(9, 13)
14	If Sn = 1/2 + 1/6 + 1/12 + ...n terms. The sum of first six terms in A.P. with first term equal to -p and common difference p is (2026.S ₂₀₂₅) ^1/2. The absolute value of difference between 20th and 15th term in A.P. is	25
15	If f(x) satisfies the functional equation f(x) + 6 f(1/x)) = 35/3x - 7/2, x ∈ R - {0} and if lim (x→0) (1/αx + f(x)) exist finitely and is equal to β, then (α - 2β) is	4

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